The Apocrypha
What it is and Why
it is
Not Inspired Scripture

"Pastor,
I heard that the King James 1611 Bible included the Apocrypha. If so,
why do we not have it in our Bible today?"
(Matt.4:4) "It is
written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that
proceedeth out of the mouth of God."
a) Let's begin by asking,
"Who knows what the APOCRYPHA is?" What is it?
b) How many here knew that
the Apocrypha was found within the covers of a KJV 1611?
c) Why would we not accept
the Apocrypha in our Bible today?
Alright now, I want you to
know that this is one of those questions that will be thrown against you
to undermine your faith in the King James Bible.
[A] 1st, the word
"Apocrypha" is a Greek word that means "hidden things".
* It was first applied to
some writings that were regarded as so important and precious that they
must be HIDDEN from the general public.
* Later, it was applied to
writings which were hidden, not because they were too good, but
because they were NOT GOOD ENOUGH (or even questionable).
* Finally, the word meant
"those books not considered to be official Hebrew Scriptures"
by the Early Jewish Church Fathers.
[B] There is a list of
about 15 books that make up this Apocrypha. They are:
* Tobit, * Judith, * Wisdom
of Solomon,
* Ecclesiasticus, * Baruch, *
1 & 2 Maccabees,
* 1 & 2 Esdras, * a
Letter of Jeremiah, * The Son of the Three,
* Bel & the Dragon, * The
Prayer of Manasseh,
* and additions to the books
of Esther & Daniel.
[C] In 1546, at the
Council of Trent, the Roman Catholic Church officially declared these
Apocryphal books to be:
* Not only historically
enlightening, but also Inspired Scripture ... and therefore declared
that they were to be part of the Old Testament Canon (as any of the
other 39 Old Testament books like Genesis, Psalms, etc).
* And they said, Anyone who
opposes the inspiration of these books is cursed!
... so if you pick up a Roman
Catholic Bible today, following the book of Malachi you will find many
(if not all) of these Apocryphal books. IF you asked a Roman Catholic
how many books made up the Old Testament, he would say 54.
[D] What about the King
James 1611 translators?
When the King James
translators put together our Authorized Version, they said,
"Listen, we DO
believe that these Apocryphal books are HISTORICALLY ENLIGHTENING, but
we DO NOT believe that they are INSPIRED CANON ... so we will include
these writings IN BETWEEN the Old and New Testament for it's information
value."
So, if you asked a KJV 1611
translator how many books made up the Old Testament, they would say 39.
Can you see the difference
there?
* One (RC) has added it INTO
the Old Testament saying it's historically helpful AND Inspired.
* The other (KJ translators)
added it BETWEEN the Old & New Testaments saying that it was
historically helpful (as maps, concordance, or Scofield notes) BUT NOT
Inspired!
Now wait, IF the
Apocrypha IS Scripture, then we need to live by it (Matt.4:4). IF the
Apocrypha IS NOT Scripture, then we don't have to worry about it!
[E] Do we have any grounds
to help us to decide which side is correct? Yes! Let
me show you the reasons that the KJV 1611 translators DID NOT
accept the Apocrypha as Inspired Canon.
a) THE APOCRYPHA WAS
REJECTED BY EARLY JEWISH CHURCH FATHERS
1st, I said earlier that the
Apocrypha was "those books not considered to be official Hebrew
Scriptures" by the Early Jewish Church Fathers.
Why is that so important?
Because of Romans 3:1-2. God gave the Jew the responsibility of being
the earthly guardians of the Holy Scriptures ... and the early Jewish
Christians never considered any of these 15 books to be Holy Scriptures.
Truth is, it wasn't until the
5th Century that anybody considered these more than good writings (like
Shakespeare) in their day.
b) THE APOCRYPHA WAS NEVER
QUOTED BY JESUS OR THE APOSTLES
On 63 specific
occasions in the New Testament we read, "It is
written", as in ...
"It is written, Man
shall not live by bread alone, but by every word ..." (Matt.4:4)
"it is also written in
the 2nd psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have.." (Acts 13:33)
Every time it says, "It
is written", WHERE was it written? In O.T. books!
Matthew 4:4 was quoting
Deut.8:3; and Acts 13:33 was quoting Psalm 2:7.
Okay, the entire New
Testament reaches back into the Old Testament and ties prophecy together
with fulfillment. It is all intertwined. ex. Someone says, "Well, I
don't believe in the book of Jonah, but I do accept the rest of the
Bible!" There's one great problem, Jesus (while on the earth 890
yrs later) said, "For as Jonas was 3 days & 3 nights in the
whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be 3 days & 3 nights in the
heart of the earth." (Matt.12:40). The New Testament demands that
you also accept the book of Jonah.
Now, follow this ... NOT
ONE TIME was even one passage from any of the Apocryphal books ever
once quoted by Jesus or the other Apostles.
c) JESUS DID NOT INCLUDE
THE APOCRYPHAL BOOKS IN HIS SUMMARY OF THE Old TESTAMENT
Look at Matthew 23:34-35.
* In what book of Old
Testament was righteous Abel killed? Gen.4:8
* In what book of Old Test.
was righteous Zacharias killed? 2 Chron.24:20-21
"Well, Preacher, what
does that prove? Gen – 2 Chron. is only ½ of the Old Testament?"
In our English Bible that is
so, but in the Hebrew Old Testament, the books are placed in a different
order (as follows) ... Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers,
Deuteronomy, Joshua, Judges, 1 & 2 Samuel, 1 & 2 Kings, Isaiah,
Jeremiah, Ezekial, Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum,
Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi, Psalms, Proverbs, Job,
Song of Solomon, Ruth, Lamentations, Ecclesiastes, Esther, Daniel, Ezra,
Nehemiah and ending with 1 & 2 Chronicles.
Jesus was saying that the
blood of all those slain in the Old Testament Scriptures would be laid
on those Christ-rejecting Pharisees in Matt.23. Jesus' list included
what we know as the 39 Old Testament books (without even one of the
Apocrypha books).
d) NONE OF THE AUTHORS OF
APOCRYPHAL BOOKS EVER CLAIMED TO BE INSPIRED
In fact, we read in 2
Maccabees 15:38-39, "At this point I will bring my work to an
end. If it is found well written and aptly composed, that is what I
myself hoped for; if cheap and mediocre, I could only do my best. For,
just as it is disagreeable to drink wine alone or water alone, whereas
the mixing of the two gives a pleasant and delightful taste, so too
variety of style in a literary work charms the ear of the reader. let
this then be my final word."
e) THE APOCRYPHAL BOOKS
WERE NOT WRITTEN IN THE HEBREW LANGUAGE (WHICH THE O.T. WAS)
f) THE CONTENTS OF THESE
BOOKS IS MANY TIMES CONFLICTING WITH OTHER SCRIPTURE
For example:
i) It Promotes Prayers for
the Dead - In 2 Maccabees 12:39-45 we read,
"Next day they went, as
had by now become necessary, to collect the bodies of the fallen (Jews)
in order to bury them with their relatives in the ancestral graves. But
on every one of the dead (Jews), they found, under the tunic, amulets
sacred to the idols of Jamnia, objects which the law forbids to Jews. It
was evident to all that here was the reason why these men had fallen.
Therefore they praised the work of the Lord, the just judge, who reveals
what is hidden; and, turning to prayer, they asked that this sin (of the
dead Jews) might be entirely blotted out. He levied a contribution from
each man (still alive), and sent the total of two thousand silver
drachmas to Jerusalem for a sin-offering - a fit and proper act in which
he took due account of the resurrection. For if he had not been
expecting the fallen to rise again, it would have been foolish and
superfluous to pray for the dead. But since he had in view the wonderful
reward reserved for those who die a godly death, his purpose was a holy
and pious one. And this was why
HE OFFERED AN ATONING SACRIFICE TO FREE THE DEAD FROM THEIR SIN."
- Do you wonder why the Roman
Catholics would approve such a writing?
ii) It Promotes Salvation
by Money - In Ecclesiasticus 3:30, we read,
"As water quenches a
blazing fire, so almsgiving atones for sin."
- Do you wonder why the Roman
Catholics would approve such a writing?
iii) It Promotes Cruelty
to Slaves - In Ecclesiasticus 33:24-28 we read,
"Fodder,
and stick, and burdens for the donkey;
bread,
and discipline, and work for the servant!
Make
your slave work, if you want rest for yourself;
if
you leave him idle, he will be looking for his liberty.
The
ox is tamed by yoke and harness,
the
bad servant by racks and tortures.
Put
him to work to keep him from being idle,
for
idleness is a great teacher of mischief.
Set
him to work, for that is what he is for,
and
if he disobeys you, load him with fetters."
iv) It Justifies Suicide
- In 2 Maccabees 14:45-46 we read, "He was still breathing,
still on fire with courage; so, streaming with blood and severely
wounded, he picked himself up and dashed through the crowd. Finally,
standing on a sheer rock, and now completely drained of blood, he took
his entrails (inner parts of body, intestines) in both hands and flung
them at the crowd. And thus, invoking (requesting, even demanding) the
Lord of life and breath to give these entrails back to him again, he
died."
v) It Promotes
Reincarnation - that is, you were another being before this life.
In the Wisdom of Solomon
8:19-20 we read,
"As a child I was
born to excellence, and a noble soul fell to my lot; or rather, I myself
was noble, and I entered into an unblemished body"
vi) It's Record of Facts
is Inaccurate - In Tobit 14:1, it tells us the man named Tobit died
at 112 yrs old. But if you check the details of his birth (recorded in
Tobit 1:4-5) to the Captivity ... he had to be over 200 years old.
vii) In addition to the
above that I have documented, I'm told that in the Apocrypha:
* a man, Antiochos Ephiphanes
dies 3 different times in 3 different places in the two books of
Maccabees.
* I'm told it promotes lying,
suicide, assassination, and magical incantations
* I'm told it teaches sinless
perfection
[F] The last thing to know
is that the Vaticanus & Sinaiticus manuscripts (which is the basis
for many of the New Bible Versions on the market today) included 7 of
these Apocryphal books as a PART of their inspired Old Testament canon.
Those 7 being
(Tobit, Judith, Bell and the
Dragon, Maccabees, and others).
If having the Apocrypha
between the Testaments disqualifies the KJV as authoritative, then the
corrupt Vaticanus & Sinaiticus manuscripts from Alexandria, Egypt
must be totally worthless since their authors obviously didn't have the
conviction of the King James translators and incorporated its books in
the text of the Old Testament thus giving it authority with
Scripture." (Sam Gipp, pg.100)
So the Question was,
"Pastor, I heard that the King James 1611 Bible included the
Apocrypha. If so, why do we not have it in our Bible today?"
The
reason for that the KJV 1611 translators DID include it BETWEEN the
O.T. & N.T. was for it's historical help, but they DID NOT
accept the Apocrypha as inspired canon because:
a) The APOCRYPHA was REJECTED
by the Early Jewish Church Fathers
b) The APOCRYPHA was NEVER
ONCE QUOTED by Jesus or the 12 Apostles
c) Jesus did not include the
Apocryphal Books in His Summary of the Old Testament
d) None of the Authors of
Apocryphal books ever claimed to be Inspired
e) The Apocryphal books were
not written in the Hebrew Language (as the O.T. was)
f) The Contents of the
Apocrypha is many times Conflicting to other Scriptures